Hi everyone I am awaiting a call from my daughter's DR. but I thought maybe someone would be able to help me if they knew anything. I actually am trying to figure out what my 7 year old daughter's MRI results mean? She was diagnosed with diabetes insipidus when she was 3 and has been having MRI's for the past 3 years under sedation to check her pituitary gland. Until this one they have come back normal. I don't even know if this one is abnormal or not. I am waiting to hear from the dr. still. She has been getting bad headaches with sensitivity to the light, along with dizziness at times and cramping in her legs and feet, also she has been abnormally cranky. Her endocronologist thinks that her cramping and headaches may relate to the DI. Her results read as follows:
There is ill-defined area of hyperintense T2/FLAIR signal within the subcortical white matter of the left superior frontal gyrus near the vertex. There is no associated enhancement, mass effect or volume loss, and finding may represent a focal area of cortical dysplasia versus gliosis versus hamartoma versus demyelination.
"IMPRESSION:
Nonspecific nonenhancing subcortical signal abnormality within the high left superior frontal gyrus which may represent cortical dysplasia versus gliosis versus hamartoma versus demyelination. Follow up imaging over time may be done for futher evaluation of stability verseus change."
I don't know if anyone knows what that could possibly mean but any feedback would be appreciated. Thank you in advance for any help you can offer.
Teresa R.
1 comment… read it below or add one
i really dont know but call the doc so he/she can explain .
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